I wonder in this case if they are impairing goodwill (the price paid in excess of the book value of the physical assets) or if it is truly depreciating physical

I wonder in this case if they are impairing goodwill (the price paid in excess of the book value of the physical assets) or if it is truly depreciating physical assets that need to be replaced in the future. If the latter, this is what all businesses do and makes complete sense, but if the former it is just a tax deferral strategy and in the future they’ll sell to another billionaire at a higher price and have to recognize the capital gain.