I just don't see any evidence that IRV can be considered a stepping stone to truly better voting methods. Looking empirically at the matter, the places that ado

I just don't see any evidence that IRV can be considered a stepping stone to truly better voting methods. Looking empirically at the matter, the places that adopt and later repeal IRV don't adopt better methods. They revert to choose-one. (Or in the case of Burlington, revert to choose-one and then confoundingly re-adopt IRV). Are there counterexamples I'm missing?