4 ms·
Why does he use the form: "A relation more or less correspond to" and "A relation have"? This doesn't seem to me to be unintended.
by flint 5y ago
Why does he use the form: "A relation more or less correspond to" and "A relation have"? This doesn't seem to me to be unintended.
- tyingq 5y agoHe's somewhat consistent with that. "A relation...correspond", "relation refer to the", "an attribute correspond to". But diverges on that pattern for "domain": "a domain...corresponds".
- whatshisface 5y agoLevel 0 data science: "We have several datapoints." Level 1 data science: "We have several data." Level 100 data science: "A relation have a fixed number of attributes (columns) and each column have a domain [...]."
- wcarss 5y agomay also be english as a second+ language or just a frequent brainfart around pluralization, see the intro: > This post explains what 1NF actually means and is useful for, and debunk a number of the misunderstandings.
- ehw3 5y agoThe Wikipedia entry on First Normal Form also uses this kind of construction, which I suspect means it was written by the same person. I have never seen terms like domain and attribute used as if they were plurals (the way "data" is), but even were that correct, "a domain have" would be contradictory, so I think it is just a linguistic quirk of the writer.