I think it's not obvious but it reduces to a relatively 'common' integral. 1 - cos(x) can be written as 2*cos^2(x/2) Take the logarithm and you get 2ln (cos(x

I think it's not obvious but it reduces to a relatively 'common' integral. 1 - cos(x) can be written as 2*cos^2(x/2) Take the logarithm and you get 2ln (cos(x/2)), which is relatively common and the solution is https://www.quora.com/How-do-I-integrate-log-cos-x-from-0-to-pi-2 https://www.quora.com/How-do-I-integrate-log-cos-x-from-0-to...