3 ms·
No, that is saying that f(0) = 0 which is correct but not what I asked about (nor what was stated in the article). Incidentally, your correct observation is in
by prof-dr-ir 5y ago
No, that is saying that f(0) = 0 which is correct but not what I asked about (nor what was stated in the article).
Incidentally, your correct observation is in contradiction with f(a) = 2 pi log(|a|) since the latter only holds for |a| >= 1. This is because f(a) is not a smooth function.