4 ms·
Because the integral is then over ln(1) and the log of 1 is 0.
by cryvate1284 5y ago
Because the integral is then over ln(1) and the log of 1 is 0.
- prof-dr-ir 5y agoNo, that is saying that f(0) = 0 which is correct but not what I asked about (nor what was stated in the article). Incidentally, your correct observation is in contradiction with f(a) = 2 pi log(|a|) since the latter only holds for |a| >= 1. This is because f(a) is not a smooth function.