4 ms·
> The American South, where slavery was more prevalent, is poorer than the North. Since the north is more rich than the south, that's supposed to be an example
by lifeformed 5y ago
> The American South, where slavery was more prevalent, is poorer than the North.
Since the north is more rich than the south, that's supposed to be an example of how they weren't enriched from slavery?
They both benefited tremendously from slavery, ending when they fought a devastating war over it. A slavery based economy does not transition well into a world where slavery is illegal. Not to mention that a lot of the poor people in the south are literally the slaves and their descendants.
- JackFr 5y agoEvery consumer of cotton in the first half of the 19th century was a beneficiary of slavery. That's why serious abolitionists eschewed cotton. An unflinching economic analysis shows that the value of the labor stolen was distributed (not necessarily evenly) between plantation owners, textile manufacturers and consumers.