3 ms·
Perhaps I'm misunderstanding, but the post says that the optimal bet size f = 1-2p (where p is the probability of winning). But, this seems backwards. As p go
by fairity 5y ago
Perhaps I'm misunderstanding, but the post says that the optimal bet size f = 1-2p (where p is the probability of winning). But, this seems backwards. As p goes up, you should be betting more.
Shouldn't the optimal bet size, f, be 2p-1?
- mgraczyk 5y agoYes, looks like a typo. The plots show the correct direction though (f* is an increasing function of p)