I'm a bit confused reading this, the argument that the 1%+ echelon are ~= to corporations in an aggregate model, and that effectively corporations are underinve

I'm a bit confused reading this, the argument that the 1%+ echelon are ~= to corporations in an aggregate model, and that effectively corporations are underinvesting? Or rather that the 1% are under-consuming, and so any evaluations of net household saving/consumption are skewed because there is dramatically more saving on one side and more aggregate debt on the other. I haven't seen what recent levels of corp/household/gov/balance spending/saving are. I also like to refer to this post for these kind of macro questions. I'm not an economist, but it's interesting to see how all the pieces fit together. https://nathantankus.substack.com/p/where-do-profits-come-from https://nathantankus.substack.com/p/where-do-profits-come-fr...