How is that different from capital gains tax? Unless you mean a series of leins incurred once a year based on price increases. But then an asset with high YoY

How is that different from capital gains tax? Unless you mean a series of leins incurred once a year based on price increases. But then an asset with high YoY volatility but no long-term gain would cause the lein sum to approach the value of the asset over many years, despite no material increase in price at exit. That makes no sense - the government profiting off of volatility alone. If that's not what you mean, how is what you mean different from standard capital gains tax?