4 ms·

If the punishment for a crime is a fine, then it only applies to the poor.

• dragonwriter 5y ago
  > If the punishment for a crime is a fine, then it only applies to the poor. If its a fixed fine that is not adjusted in either direction for ability to pay, or which maxes out at a level which only is meaningful to the poor, sure. If the fine is ““Your net worth minus the lesser of half your actual average annual income from legal sources for the last five years or double the federal poverty level for an individual”, it doesn’t “only apply to the poor”. Of course, most criminal fines do only apply to the poor, but that’s not inherent to fines, but just what fines look like when the law is intended to punish the poor to start with.
  • deusum 5y ago
    Finland is one of the few places I know of that enforces fines that way.[1] Would be great is everyone did. But as the rich are so good at dodging taxes, already, I imagine it wouldn't be as effective as desired. https://www.theatlantic.com/business/archive/2015/03/finland-home-of-the-103000-speeding-ticket/387484/ https://www.theatlantic.com/business/archive/2015/03/finland...