5 ms·

And yet one year later we learn that 18% of Americans are binge drinkers: https://www.nbcnews.com/health/health-news/americans-are-drinking-more-lot-more-n3471

• throwaway0a5e 5y ago
  If approximately one in five people are doing it then either it needs to lose the stigma or the definition needs to change.
  • bart_spoon 5y ago
    Stigma doesn’t exist simply based on how many people do something.
  • recursive 5y ago
    Honest question: Why? Isn't that up to those who hold the stigma? I'd have a stigma against dog walkers who left their dog crap at the park, even if I found it was most dog walkers. (I don't think it is)
    • bigfudge 5y ago
      I think the difference there is that even if most people left dog crap we might still have a consensus that that was a bad thing and that people shouldn’t do it.
    • taneq 5y ago
      It’s because the stigma is based on the “binge drinker” label and its implication of irresponsible levels of drinking, while the official definition of the label itself specifies a level of drinking that many would otherwise not deem an issue. eg. three restaurant-pour glasses of wine during a three course meal.
  • flyingfences 5y ago
    Would you say the same about cigarettes? Or about drunk driving?