4 ms·
From the link it sounds like Okrand basically wanted Klingon to use stative verbs with no copula. Actually, many languages function that way, i.e. Mandarin. As
by viciousvoxel 5y ago
From the link it sounds like Okrand basically wanted Klingon to use stative verbs with no copula. Actually, many languages function that way, i.e. Mandarin. As an aside, while Hebrew has "to be", it does not have a present tense.