4 ms·
No, because proofs have to consist of a finite number of words. Thus there are only countably many proofs of anything. In particular, there are only countably m
by kevinventullo 5y ago
No, because proofs have to consist of a finite number of words. Thus there are only countably many proofs of anything. In particular, there are only countably many reals between 0 and 1 which can be expressed in a finite number of words.
- c22 5y agoAre there a finite number of words? Language seems to grow and adapt to new concepts as needed, perhaps there is an infinity of linguistic descriptions available to us.