3 ms·
No, it was used for everyone speaking a non-Greek language. In Homer there is no "barbarian"; only "barbar-speaking". But by the time of Aeschylus, it was a no
by zvr 5y ago
No, it was used for everyone speaking a non-Greek language.
In Homer there is no "barbarian"; only "barbar-speaking". But by the time of Aeschylus, it was a noun denoting people speaking non-Greek. There was also the corresponding verb that meant "speak a foreign language" but also "speak broken Greek / make lots of errors speaking (Greek)".
In Roman times, "barbarian" meant anyone who was not Roman or Greek.