>> my general take is that the top 1% by income do pay roughly their fair share but the top 1% by wealth don't > What evidence do you have of that? The tax ra

>> my general take is that the top 1% by income do pay roughly their fair share but the top 1% by wealth don't > What evidence do you have of that? The tax rate on my salary is way higher than the tax rate on my investments and property. It's perhaps possible that the top 1% by income are also not paying their fair share, but in that case the top 1% by wealth definitely aren't. > Because it's already been taxed (corporate tax rates). Labor expenses come out of pretax revenue. So what? I pay taxes on my grocery bill, and I buy groceries with money I already paid taxes on.