4 ms·
Funny - since I almost cited the article that (I think) you have in mind. The article I remember wasn't an actual proof though: it was a reductio ad absurdum, u
by telemachos 15y ago
Funny - since I almost cited the article that (I think) you have in mind. The article I remember wasn't an actual proof though: it was a reductio ad absurdum, used in a review of a book about Homer that used statistical methods. The reductio was, in a nutshell, to show that by the same argument as the one in the book on Homer, the reviewer could prove that Milton didn't write Paradise Lost.
In any case, here's a JSTOR reference to the article I'm thinking of: http://www.jstor.org/stable/641985 http://www.jstor.org/stable/641985. (I can provide a pdf copy if anyone wants it. Check my profile for email.) I wonder if this is the one you're remembering.
- bartonfink 15y agoExactly what I'm thinking of. If you assume two different people wrote the Iliad and the Odyssey, the same logic shows the Paradise discrepancy. Damn, that Latin degree pays for itself more and more.