3 ms·
Having bias but being open to change one's mind is a correct application of the Bayes' theorem, isn't it? (I agree the root comment was a bit... weird, let's p
by qsort 5y ago
Having bias but being open to change one's mind is a correct application of the Bayes' theorem, isn't it?
(I agree the root comment was a bit... weird, let's put it that way, but the author themselves acknowledged that)
- watwut 5y agoI mean ... who cares. Having bias, then calling it as win or acting like no one is allowed to point out it is bias is not correct application of the Bayes' theorem. I did not flagged the comment nor downvoted it. I responded to claim that it was win. Which responded to claim that the comment took offense.