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He didn't actually. Feudalism had ended long before. Feudalism is usually consider for early to high middle ages, by the late middle ages and early modern perio

• misiti3780 5y ago
  "Napoleon extended French legislation dismantling feudal property relations to annexed territories" https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1057/9780230236738_8 https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1057/9780230236738_8 Seems like he ended it in some places - no ?
  • nickik 5y ago
    The problem is that the world 'feudal' is very overloaded. There are some historians that basically refuse to use it outside of a very limited perspective. Other historians (mostly non-medieval historians) use it for basically everything from 700 AD to 1700 AD. Medieval historians are not very happy with this. The paper basically mentions this here: > First, by the eighteenth century feudalism was primarily (but not solely) a system of property law rather than a mode of production or a form of social domination. So basically their argument is that the type of property law changed under Napoleon. And that is probably fair (I need to read the whole paper). But I would say that 'ended feudalism'. Its probably a good thing, I would agree. I must admit I don't know enough about property relation in France. I would like to read this paper in more detail. I read far more about Russia and Britain, stemming form my dislike of France.