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What the statement says is that if a property is certainly predictable, then it exists. It doesn't say that all existing things are certainly predictable.
by ziofill 5y ago
What the statement says is that if a property is certainly predictable, then it exists. It doesn't say that all existing things are certainly predictable.
- pmoriarty 5y agoBut that doesn't say what it means by existence. It leaves that part unsaid. To go a bit deeper in to this, it's not just saying certainly predictable properties are certainly predictable. It wants to say something else about them: that they exist. What does it mean by that? The statement as it stands is more about certainly predictable properties than it is about existence itself.
- ziofill 5y agoI think I understand your point: we don't define existence per se. But here we only need to define the existence of the value of a property. And we define it by saying that if the we can predict the value before measuring it, then the value "exists". Take it as an axiom. When I said "the very value of the entangled properties does not exist locally" in my first post I meant that there is no way to predict the value (or of consistently assigning a value to the property) before performing a measurement.