6 ms·

“Surprisingly” vs. “to our surprise” is not a passive vs. active voice distinction.

teachingassist 5y ago
In the sense that "to our surprise" identifies "us" with identity and agency, it is. How would you describe this difference, otherwise?
- hunter2_ 5y ago
  At first, I fully agreed with you. Then I saw another comment using "an experiment was conducted" as an typical example of passive voice, and I find that to be far more passive: "...was conducted" suggests no information about the conductor. It could be the author, and in the specific context of an academic paper it implies the author, but it could just as well be anyone else on Earth especially outside of this context. "Surprisingly" (or "the results were a surprise," etc.), on the other hand, doesn't leave anything to the imagination. I can't think of a way this word could potentially mean that another party but the author was surprised. Passive voice could hide the party responsible for surprising someone (active "Alice surprised Bob" becomes passive "Bob was surprised"), but in the original scenario, the party causing the surprise (the subject, which could be hidden by passive voice), is the experiment. The surprised party is the direct object, not the subject... passive voice is not a term to describe hiding the direct object; that's transitive versus intransitive.
  - teachingassist 5y ago
    The definition of passive given on Wikipedia here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Passive_voice#Defining_%22passive%22 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Passive_voice#Defining_%22pass... does not seem to be prescriptive in that particular way. My question was: If we prefer not to use the word 'passive' to describe this difference, what should it be called instead?
    - umanwizard 5y ago
      That definition of passive voice is extremely general and abstract because it's meant to apply to all human languages. The Wikipedia definition of English passive voice is more instructive: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_passive_voice https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_passive_voice . The term distinguishes between sentences where the semantic agent is the syntactic subject, and those where it is the object. For example: "Bob threw a ball at Suzie" (active, Bob is the syntactic subject) vs. "A ball was thrown at Suzie by Bob" (passive, Bob is the object of a preposition and "a ball" is the subject).
      - jhgb 5y ago
        The word 'deagentization' is quite unsurprisingly my second favorite Czech word after 'defenestration'.
    - hunter2_ 5y ago
      I edited the tail end of my previous comment to touch on this, which is to say that omitting the direct object typically involves using intransitive instead of transitive. For example, the intransitive "today I ate" instead of the transitive "today I ate pie" leaves you guessing what I ate. The verb "surprise" does seem to have an intransitive syntax per https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/surprise https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/surprise which gives a similar sentiment as "surprisingly."
    - rossitter 5y ago
      I'm not sure I agree that a distinction needs to be made between the two, certainly not on lines of agency. The "our" in "to our surprise" may or may not correspond to an agent, patient, etc., in the modified clause. To an agent: "To our surprise, we found them. To our surprise, group A was found by us first." To a patient: "To our surprise, they found us. To our surprise, we were found by group A." To neither: "To our surprise, group A found group B. To our surprise, group B was found by group A." I suppose "to our surprise" is explicit about whose expectations weren't met in a way that "surprisingly" is not. But in a first-person narrative, I imagine most readers would understand "surprisingly" to mean "to my/our surprise."
- deleted 5y ago
  [deleted]
- rossitter 5y ago
  "To our surprise" is an adverbial. It has no voice. It can modify passive or active constructions, but it does not prefer one over the other. Active: To our surprise, they had left the door open. Passive: To our surprise, the door had been left open.

In the sense that "to our surprise" identifies "us" with identity and agency, it is. How would you describe this difference, otherwise?

hunter2_ 5y ago
At first, I fully agreed with you. Then I saw another comment using "an experiment was conducted" as an typical example of passive voice, and I find that to be far more passive: "...was conducted" suggests no information about the conductor. It could be the author, and in the specific context of an academic paper it implies the author, but it could just as well be anyone else on Earth especially outside of this context. "Surprisingly" (or "the results were a surprise," etc.), on the other hand, doesn't leave anything to the imagination. I can't think of a way this word could potentially mean that another party but the author was surprised. Passive voice could hide the party responsible for surprising someone (active "Alice surprised Bob" becomes passive "Bob was surprised"), but in the original scenario, the party causing the surprise (the subject, which could be hidden by passive voice), is the experiment. The surprised party is the direct object, not the subject... passive voice is not a term to describe hiding the direct object; that's transitive versus intransitive.
- teachingassist 5y ago
  The definition of passive given on Wikipedia here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Passive_voice#Defining_%22passive%22 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Passive_voice#Defining_%22pass... does not seem to be prescriptive in that particular way. My question was: If we prefer not to use the word 'passive' to describe this difference, what should it be called instead?
  - umanwizard 5y ago
    That definition of passive voice is extremely general and abstract because it's meant to apply to all human languages. The Wikipedia definition of English passive voice is more instructive: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_passive_voice https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_passive_voice . The term distinguishes between sentences where the semantic agent is the syntactic subject, and those where it is the object. For example: "Bob threw a ball at Suzie" (active, Bob is the syntactic subject) vs. "A ball was thrown at Suzie by Bob" (passive, Bob is the object of a preposition and "a ball" is the subject).
    - jhgb 5y ago
      The word 'deagentization' is quite unsurprisingly my second favorite Czech word after 'defenestration'.
  - hunter2_ 5y ago
    I edited the tail end of my previous comment to touch on this, which is to say that omitting the direct object typically involves using intransitive instead of transitive. For example, the intransitive "today I ate" instead of the transitive "today I ate pie" leaves you guessing what I ate. The verb "surprise" does seem to have an intransitive syntax per https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/surprise https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/surprise which gives a similar sentiment as "surprisingly."
  - rossitter 5y ago
    I'm not sure I agree that a distinction needs to be made between the two, certainly not on lines of agency. The "our" in "to our surprise" may or may not correspond to an agent, patient, etc., in the modified clause. To an agent: "To our surprise, we found them. To our surprise, group A was found by us first." To a patient: "To our surprise, they found us. To our surprise, we were found by group A." To neither: "To our surprise, group A found group B. To our surprise, group B was found by group A." I suppose "to our surprise" is explicit about whose expectations weren't met in a way that "surprisingly" is not. But in a first-person narrative, I imagine most readers would understand "surprisingly" to mean "to my/our surprise."
deleted 5y ago
[deleted]
rossitter 5y ago
"To our surprise" is an adverbial. It has no voice. It can modify passive or active constructions, but it does not prefer one over the other. Active: To our surprise, they had left the door open. Passive: To our surprise, the door had been left open.