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I can’t understand your comment. Which one is your sentence? What does the use of the present perfect tense in English have to do with French? Both of your Engl

I can’t understand your comment. Which one is your sentence? What does the use of the present perfect tense in English have to do with French? Both of your English examples are correct, but the one using the present perfect is closer to the French version. I wouldn’t take DuoLingo too seriously: https://lee-phillips.org/whyDuoLingoWhy/ https://lee-phillips.org/whyDuoLingoWhy/

msrenee 6y ago
That's pretty bad that they don't have pronouns correctly identified by their case. El and ella are nominative, equivalent to he and she in English. Him and her are objective/accusative/dative (since those cases all use the same pronouns in English). As far as I can remember my Spanish, lo (and la for feminine nouns I think) would be the equivalent of him and her. If someone out there is less rusty and sees an error in my explanation, please let me know. I learned cases in Russian 10 years ago and it's hard to turn around and apply them to languages that use fewer cases.
- leephillips 6y ago
  Not quite. Pronouns in Spanish are more complicated than in English. You can use él and ella as objects preceded by prepositions, as in a ella. And, while in English we make do with just subject and object pronouns, in Spanish there is a distinction between direct and indirect objects. So (since you asked) lo is for neuter or masculine direct objects, and la is for feminine direct objects. But for indirect objects, use le for him, her, or formal you. It’s tricky, at least for English speakers, because the indirect object comes up where you would least expect it. For example, I tell her in English includes the direct object, but in Spanish the equivalent is indirect.
willyt 6y ago
Mine was the UK english one. I don't know what present perfect is, as I said many UK state schools didn't teach English grammar in the late 80's/90's.
- leephillips 6y ago
  Your answer was not incorrect. DuoLingo is often wrong. See the example on my web page.

msrenee 6y ago

That's pretty bad that they don't have pronouns correctly identified by their case. El and ella are nominative, equivalent to he and she in English. Him and her are objective/accusative/dative (since those cases all use the same pronouns in English). As far as I can remember my Spanish, lo (and la for feminine nouns I think) would be the equivalent of him and her. If someone out there is less rusty and sees an error in my explanation, please let me know. I learned cases in Russian 10 years ago and it's hard to turn around and apply them to languages that use fewer cases.

leephillips 6y ago
Not quite. Pronouns in Spanish are more complicated than in English. You can use él and ella as objects preceded by prepositions, as in a ella. And, while in English we make do with just subject and object pronouns, in Spanish there is a distinction between direct and indirect objects. So (since you asked) lo is for neuter or masculine direct objects, and la is for feminine direct objects. But for indirect objects, use le for him, her, or formal you. It’s tricky, at least for English speakers, because the indirect object comes up where you would least expect it. For example, I tell her in English includes the direct object, but in Spanish the equivalent is indirect.

willyt 6y ago

Mine was the UK english one. I don't know what present perfect is, as I said many UK state schools didn't teach English grammar in the late 80's/90's.

leephillips 6y ago
Your answer was not incorrect. DuoLingo is often wrong. See the example on my web page.