4 ms·
Saying that "50% of positive integers (Z+) are divisible 2" is probably true no matter what definition you use. But it's also fair to say that whatever you do m
by bdr 18y ago
Saying that "50% of positive integers (Z+) are divisible 2" is probably true no matter what definition you use. But it's also fair to say that whatever you do mean by that does not generalize in the natural ways you'd expect it to from dealing with finite sets.