> it makes sense that police would be more likely to use force against people who are more frequently involved in said events Hence the systemic racism problem

> it makes sense that police would be more likely to use force against people who are more frequently involved in said events Hence the systemic racism problem in a nutshell. It only makes sense through the lense of human bias and racism. Are those "people" really more frequently involved in said events, or are they more frequently policed?