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It seems like a completely different argument to me. He's not arguing that committing crimes (or being involved in events that may be legally deemed crimes afte
by kar5pt 5y ago
It seems like a completely different argument to me. He's not arguing that committing crimes (or being involved in events that may be legally deemed crimes after the fact) means that someone _deserves_ to have force used on them. He's saying that it makes sense that police would be more likely to use force against people who are more frequently involved in said events.
- stadium 5y ago> it makes sense that police would be more likely to use force against people who are more frequently involved in said events Hence the systemic racism problem in a nutshell. It only makes sense through the lense of human bias and racism. Are those "people" really more frequently involved in said events, or are they more frequently policed?