If that were the reason, then surely the compensation ought to be paid directly to the lover or lovers rather than to the estate of the person who died, who mig

If that were the reason, then surely the compensation ought to be paid directly to the lover or lovers rather than to the estate of the person who died, who might have left their money to charity, not to the lover or lovers. They almost certainly do have mechanisms in place for compensating family members directly, but compensation for pain suffered in the seconds before death goes to the estate of the dead person, not to the family, if what I read was accurate and still applies. That compensation is presumably independent of whether the deceased had any family and independent of who inherits it.