3 ms·
If you can prove this, at least in the USA, this would be a serious violation of HIPAA and severe penalties would apply to entities who disclosed, knowingly rec
by otterley 6y ago
If you can prove this, at least in the USA, this would be a serious violation of HIPAA and severe penalties would apply to entities who disclosed, knowingly received, or paid for personal health information without the patient’s consent and used it for an improper purpose.
https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/marketing/index.html https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance...
- Spooky23 6y agoLol. No. You can comply with HIPAA and “anonymize” in a manner that a marketer can use to retarget, especially by combining with other data sources. HIPAA protects you against receptionists gossiping and wholesale release of your records. Not much else. When your doctor writes a script, that data is in the hands of a data aggregation company before your pharmacist looks at it. Every pharma rep has a report card for each doctors prescription practices as a result. Insurance companies and others sell claim data in aggregate and so do downstream partners like subrogation services. Some states even shared Medicaid claim data to aid in targeting ads and analysis to fight opioid abuse.
- otterley 6y agoI don’t dispute that aggregated data can be sold, but there is a causal link missing between possessing aggregated purchase data and marketing to a specific person based on certain knowledge that an individual has purchased a particular drug. We need to be able to prove that.