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Because "they" don't see a vibrant secondary market as an increase in value of "their" product, but rather as a damper upon the maximum price with which "they"
by pwg 15y ago
Because "they" don't see a vibrant secondary market as an increase in value of "their" product, but rather as a damper upon the maximum price with which "they" can charge for the product. I.e., "they" want to be a monopolist, and charge the resulting monopoly prices, and a vibrant secondary market prevents the charging of monopoly prices.
- deleted 15y ago[deleted]
- bediger 15y agoSure, they can charge a monopoly price, and maximize their profits under a monopoly assumption. But with a good secondary market, can't they charge more, given that the product in question has more value?