> How does such an obvious fallacy command such purchase among smart people? Because Swift is not talking about music (by your definition). Swift is also talki

> How does such an obvious fallacy command such purchase among smart people? Because Swift is not talking about music (by your definition). Swift is also talking about digital copies of music. And with your differentiation you've made Patel's point very well: Swift is taking a valid argument for paying for music and through conflation of the two, she is arguing that it should also apply to digital copies of music. This is the actual fallacy here.