I don't see the weirdness. I see two statements: - A person may choose which pronouns apply to themselves (on grounds of principle) - A person must not dictat

I don't see the weirdness. I see two statements: - A person may choose which pronouns apply to themselves (on grounds of principle) - A person must not dictate which pronouns apply to a whole gender (on grounds of practice) I'd be interested to [hear] when [RMS] would not use someone's preferred pronoun and instead call them a 'perse'? Presumably, when the pronoun preference of the person isn't known to the speaker?