But why do you claim the article "leaves out" German grammar, if the mention of it is clearly there, as an explicitly called out base, in the very first sentenc

But why do you claim the article "leaves out" German grammar, if the mention of it is clearly there, as an explicitly called out base, in the very first sentences of the article? "With its German grammatical structure and the bulk of its vocabulary coming from German, Yiddish is usually classified as a Germanic tongue. [...]" Given this unambiguous note at the beginning, I find it easy to understand that the author of the article wants to focus on an aspect of the language that he sees as less blatantly obvious, and thus potentially more interesting to a reader. Would you find an article explaining that "the Sun is bright" more interesting than exploring some nuances of it, e.g. how the Sun can become less bright during a rare event of an eclipse? Now this makes me confused if there's some "intent" behind your comment, given that it takes a demonstrably incorrect claim and builds a vague accusation on it; not to mention that even if there was any truth to this false claim, a sprinkle of a good will assumption can still lead the reader in a direction of completely benign motive. With that said, given that I prefer to start with an assumption of good will, I hope and suspect you probably just skipped or forgotten the first paragraphs of the article; I just wish you made sure to re-read them before jumping to accusations. edit: looking into the history of your comments, I would recommend reconsidering if a more constructive and less trolling/inflammatory approach could make your contributions to the community & discussions a better long-term strategy.