4 ms·

Pre-20th century Poland and the Jewish “Pale of Settlement” were essentially the same area.

• bodhiandphysics 6y ago
  There was no pre 20th century Poland! The pale is the same as the Polish Lithuanian commonwealth (mostly), minus Habsburg Galicia and the Prussian part of Poland. The nobility of the polish Lithuanian commonwealth were mostly polish or German speaking (and thus there is very little lithuanian or Belarusian in Yiddish even though a huge number of Jews lived in the Lithuanian part of the commonwealth)
  • Tade0 6y ago
    Of course there was. The commonwealth was established in 1385, while Poland as a state came into existence effectively in 966, when Mieszko I adopted Christianity.
    • mantas 6y ago
      1385 was one ruler - two states kind of a deal. Commonwealth was established in 1569.
      • ajuc 6y ago
        It changed with time and successive personal unions. By 1569 the Commonwealth was already functioning in practice before it was formalized.
• lokl 6y ago
  This is false. "Pale of Settlement" refers to part of the Russian Empire and, while some of what is today Poland was then controlled by the Russian Empire, other parts of Poland were under Prussian or Austrian control (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partitions_of_Poland https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partitions_of_Poland).
  • pram 6y ago
    The Pale and the Partition are contemporaneous. How is it false? lol
    • lokl 6y ago
      Prussian and Austrian areas were not part of the Pale. Pale was a subset of the Russian Empire.
      • pram 6y ago
        The Russian empire contained Poland up to and beyond Warsaw. That is by any reasonable definition a large part of Poland. This is a ridiculously pedantic and pointless argument