4 ms·

I haven't read the whole paper, but in looking for keywords and skimming through the determinants section, I don't see anywhere that the researchers have taken

I haven't read the whole paper, but in looking for keywords and skimming through the determinants section, I don't see anywhere that the researchers have taken in to account the partner's gender. Most of the time, it's "partner" (gender indeterminate), but whenever it is mentioned, the gender is always male. Has this paper acknowledged same-sex relationships, at all? (Apologies for the sex/gender conflation)

tom_mellior 6y ago
> Has this paper acknowledged same-sex relationships, at all? No. Nor many heterosexual practices. It generally conflates "orgasm" with "orgasm during penile-vaginal intercourse" and has only very little handwaving to justify this. It mentions "oral stimulation, then orgasm during intercourse" but doesn't acknowledge something like "oral stimulation until orgasm, followed by intercourse without" -- would this count as an "orgasm" according to their definitions? Impossible to say. There is also the assertion that female masturbation has increased a lot over time, but orgasms haven't. Wouldn't this imply that women masturbate more and more without orgasming? Isn't this an interesting issue that should be discussed? Do women not intend to orgasm from masturbation, or are they trying but failing to do so?