But isn't "worth of goods delayed" a reasonable figure? For example, if there is a total of X shipping capacity a year, and no reasonably priced alternatives (

But isn't "worth of goods delayed" a reasonable figure? For example, if there is a total of X shipping capacity a year, and no reasonably priced alternatives (or extra capacity available via rail/air/etc), then disrupting $Y worth of goods for D days reduces the total amount of goods that can be traded that year by $Y*D. Or is there something I'm missing here?