> must exist elsewhere, and more powerfully so in order to explain the gender gap. Why is anti-female bias the only possible explanation of the gap? Why is th

> must exist elsewhere, and more powerfully so in order to explain the gender gap. Why is anti-female bias the only possible explanation of the gap? Why is that the only acceptable hypothesis? It's a possibility, it might even be probable, but there seems to be an exclusionary focus both in your comments and in the abstract.