2 ms·
The article can be read as "there is a 999/1000 chance that this is not a coincidence". This is strictly speaking correct, because it doesn't specify what the c
by simiones 6y ago
The article can be read as "there is a 999/1000 chance that this is not a coincidence". This is strictly speaking correct, because it doesn't specify what the coincidence would be.
The correct interpretation is "there is a 999/1000 chance that you wouldn't see this data if the particle didn't exist" / "there is a 1/1000 chance that you would see this data if the particle didn't exist".
The wrong interpretation that still agrees with the statement is "there is a 999/1000 chance that the particle exists given that we have seen this data" / "there is a 1/1000 chance that the particle doesn't exist given that we have seen this data".
P(data | no particle) = P (no particle | data) * P (data) / P (no particle). As a layman, I have no idea what P(data) is, and I think no one can give a convincing estimate for P(no particle).
Since P(data | no particle) and P(no particle | data) are in fact proportional, the only thing I should really care about as a layman is the value of any one of them. I any way can't evaluate myself what would be a convincing probability, since I don't have any proper priors.
- davrosthedalek 6y agoNo, not quite. The probability that this is not a coincidence is unknown. The probability that you SAW the data if the particle didn't exist is 100%. The probability that you will not see it /again/ is 999/1000. The probabilities 1/1000 (or 999/1000) are only meaningul probabilites for something in the world where in fact it was a coincidence. In any other world, they are not. So saying "there is a 999/1000 chance that this is not a coincidence" isn't true, as the calculation of 999/1000 must assume that it fact it IS a coincidence.