4 ms·
Presumably - if states are defining 1-party vs. 2-party consent laws, then doesn't the 10th amendment imply that this matter shouldn't be handled federally?
by philip1209 6y ago
Presumably - if states are defining 1-party vs. 2-party consent laws, then doesn't the 10th amendment imply that this matter shouldn't be handled federally?
- rossdavidh 6y ago...unless the communications cross state lines, which in this case they mostly do.