3 ms·
In this specific case, no, what he said was not logically ("technically"), correct. The age of consent is so named because it is widely accepted that no minor
by PaulRobinson 6y ago
In this specific case, no, what he said was not logically ("technically"), correct.
The age of consent is so named because it is widely accepted that no minor is able to present themselves to an adult as "willing" to engage in sex. After much debate over hundreds of years and with inputs from researchers in child psychology, people below the age of consent are judged by society to not have the emotional maturity to make those decisions, irresepective of their physical maturity.
Now, a contrarian might argue that the age is wrong - and indeed, it does vary country by country, and often when the couple are very close in age it is accepted there was not a typical case of sexual exploitation by the elder party - but in the case RMS was referring to, Minsky was likely aware of the age of consent and the reason for its existence AND that his own behaviour was extremely likely to be exploitative and abusive no matter what the child said, so RMS's argument is logically absurd.
Minsky's behaviour can not be explained as "acceptable", because the law is not widely considered unjust in this situation other than by pedophiles. RMS' argument can logically be judged as being advocative of a pedophile's behaviour.
Therefore RMS' arguments are technically - i.e. logically - incorrect, as well as being deeply offensive to a large number of people.
He has since accepted this himself. He does not dispute it.