> It’s also quite well known that there was resistance to unification from the West, due to not wanting that again. If that was so well known, then why was it

> It’s also quite well known that there was resistance to unification from the West, due to not wanting that again. If that was so well known, then why was it that the first thing the West did was to unify their pieces of Germany into West Germany? Surely it would have been beneficial to them to keep Germany separate if they shared your assumption.