3 ms·
No no, that's the thing. It's not necessarily provable in, say, California or Texas, but we now know that P ≠ NP in at least one state, so it's a pretty signif
by rossdavidh 6y ago
No no, that's the thing. It's not necessarily provable in, say, California or Texas, but we now know that P ≠ NP in at least one state, so it's a pretty significant step forward. Previous work using induction shows that if it's true in one state, it is true in any other state. This still does leave places like D.C. and Puerto Rico as open questions as well, of course.
- krylon 6y agoIf I had read that comment just a few seconds earlier, you would probably owe me a new keyboard now. ;-)