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Literally? No, but the U.S. Supreme Court has interpreted the constitution otherwise, at least over the last century. It would take a well-worded amendment to e
by cityofdelusion 6y ago
Literally? No, but the U.S. Supreme Court has interpreted the constitution otherwise, at least over the last century. It would take a well-worded amendment to explicitly state that certain organizations of persons are different from persons in general.