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That seems to be true only if you only look at wages and ignore benefits: >...The allocation of national Shares of National Income income between workers and t
by opo 6y ago
That seems to be true only if you only look at wages and ignore benefits:
>...The allocation of national
Shares of National Income income between workers and the
owners of capital is considered one of the more remarkably
stable relationships in the U.S. economy. As a general rule of
thumb, economists often cite labor’s share of income to be
about two-thirds of national income—although the exact figure is sensitive to the specific data used to calculate the ratio. Over time, this ratio has shown no clear tendency to rise or fall. ... This measure clearly shows a declining trend in recent decades. Having reached a peak of 58 percent in 1970, wages and salaries have declined to only 52 per- cent of national income in 2003. However, if we consider total compensation—including employer social insurance contributions and benefits—labor’s share has shown very little variation.1 By this measure, labor’s share of national income has averaged 70.5 percent over the past 50 years and has remained within a narrow range of that average.
https://files.stlouisfed.org/files/htdocs/publications/net/20040801/cover.pdf https://files.stlouisfed.org/files/htdocs/publications/net/2...
- xg15 6y agoAnd yet, the US healthcare system is largely seen as one of the most expensive and one where an average middle-class household is quickly at risk of paying enormous costs out-of-pocket. Did this increase in empolyer contributions lead to any actual increase in coverage or a better treatments for employees or were just prices rising overall?
- xg15 6y ago> Having reached a peak of 58 percent in 1970, wages and salaries have declined to only 52 per- cent of national income in 2003. How did this continue after 2003?