> I don't think anyone would argue that it does pass legal muster As I read the article two lower courts in Austria do think the argument passes legal muster:

> I don't think anyone would argue that it does pass legal muster As I read the article two lower courts in Austria do think the argument passes legal muster: > The two lower Courts in Austria however took the view that is solely in Facebook's discretion to claim a term to be a "contract" or "consent". Consequently they saw no issue with Facebook's bypass, but also held that the matter needs clarification by the Supreme Courts. Am I misunderstanding something?