3 ms·
Does it even work then? I know that a Weiner process will visit all points on the real line with probability 1, but house edge is like a drift term which biases
by hntrader 6y ago
Does it even work then? I know that a Weiner process will visit all points on the real line with probability 1, but house edge is like a drift term which biases the process to go down. I'd be interested to see some results on this. Clearly, at the limit (house edge = 100% chance of winning), the probability of ever being positive is 0, but what about when the house edge is 1-epsilon?
- tromp 6y agoIt only works when the house has no edge. An unbiased random walk expects to cross the original infinitely many times, but a biased walk only finitely many times, as it tends to drift ever further away.
- deleted 6y ago[deleted]
- kgwgk 6y agoNever mind, I misunderstood the question. [Even if the game is fair and the house has no edge you may run out of chips before getting ahead. There is no certain way to win in a fair game. If you were certain to win and the opponent certain to lose it wouldn't be fair!]
- hntrader 6y agoWell I was talking about tromp's assumption of unbounded money. Of course with finite money the strategy makes no sense.
- deleted 6y ago[deleted]