Both examples are very bad. Surely the “bias” in the rule referred to the person committing the crime, not the target. And the rules in baseball are neither law

Both examples are very bad. Surely the “bias” in the rule referred to the person committing the crime, not the target. And the rules in baseball are neither laws, nor apparently enforced with bias. Seems like they’re not enforced at all. Of course it would be nice with bias free laws in some abstract sense. But I’ve never heard anyone say it was an absolute precondition. Then we’d have no laws.