5 ms·
Not quite. I guess in some ways phantom types achieve the opposite of structural typing. In a language with structural typing, two types are considered equival
by pd-andy 6y ago
Not quite. I guess in some ways phantom types achieve the opposite of structural typing.
In a language with structural typing, two types are considered equivalent if they share the same structure. With phantom types we can have a single structure and disambiguate between different uses without touching the underling structure. There's no difference between Id(User) and Id(Post) at runtime, the annotation is purely a compile-time restraint.
In fact, because of typescript's structural typing, the only way to use phantom types in ts is to have some dummy field of type `never` that the type system can use to disambiguate between the two [1].
[1]: https://gist.github.com/GoNZooo/243b23702df1fae38c966ae18832c690 https://gist.github.com/GoNZooo/243b23702df1fae38c966ae18832...
- mushishi 6y agoHoly smokes, that would be irritating :D Btw. is there a difference between these two: (s: string): PlainText => <PlainText><any>s; (s: string): PlainText => s as any as PlainText; Syntax-wise I'd rather use the latter for it's more clear in typed JSX-context.
- pd-andy 6y agoAs far as I know those two are equivalent. Definitely slightly clunkier, but is what it is.
- timdeve 6y agoYes, exactly, it's because of Structural Typing that you have to implement Phantom Types in that hacky way rather than Structural Typing being the "trick".