4 ms·
> decreased effectiveness? Yes, because the public conversation about vaccine effectiveness is very simplistic. The first-approved vaccine, the BioNTech/Pfizer
by sho_hn 6y ago
> decreased effectiveness?
Yes, because the public conversation about vaccine effectiveness is very simplistic. The first-approved vaccine, the BioNTech/Pfizer vaccine, was developed in Germany and the development subsidized with >$400mio German government money. Its success got a heap of media attention, owing also to easy access to the BioNTech founders and their human interest potential (the company was founded by Turkish immigrants, Germany's largest ethnic minority).
"95% effective" is the gold standard everyone knows now, and accepting anything less, to people, feels like they will miss out on their only chance to get "the good one". They want to feel safe, not 70% safe. The latter sounds like Russian Roulette - 30% chance to get sick just the same anyway?
The reality of course is different - it's not a binary will get sick/won't get sick, but also a "how sick". My own understanding of the medicine is also limited (I would love if this prompts an insightful comment explaining efficacy!), but AIUI almost anyone would be far safer wrt/ getting seriously sick on AZ than remaining unvaccinated.
- akmarinov 6y agoBut AZ gives 100% no severe cases, no deaths, where BioNTech is at 95%. Isn’t it much better to take the 30% mild to medium case than the 5% you might die regardless?
- Exmoor 6y agoNot really sure where you're getting this data, but in reality both Oxford/AZ and Pfizer/BioNTech will provide extremely high effectiveness at reducing severe illness. It probably won't work out to be literally 100%, but pretty close.
- akmarinov 6y agoIt’s from the official studies they did. Pfizer was 95% effective, with some severe cases. AZ and Moderna had 0 severe cases, hence the 100%.