Some of that Roman vs. Germanic distinction still remains, right? The European continental system relies much more on the written laws, and the Anglo-Saxon syst

Some of that Roman vs. Germanic distinction still remains, right? The European continental system relies much more on the written laws, and the Anglo-Saxon system more on precedent. Should also be noted that I wasn't really expecting an answer. A proper answer would probably require another study like the one referenced in this post :-)