4 ms·
Very interesting, especially considered how many societal changes these countries have gone through post-WWI. I wonder if similar results could be drawn about t
by bergie 15y ago
Very interesting, especially considered how many societal changes these countries have gone through post-WWI. I wonder if similar results could be drawn about the Roman Empire, for instance?
- troels 15y agoOf course it can. The (western) roman empire roughly corresponds to the christian part of the world.
- sien 15y agoYou could even go further and say that the Western Empire corresponds roughly to Catholic/protestant Christendom while the Eastern is Orthodox where Christianity has remained.
- bergie 15y agoThere is that, true. And I guess some legal principles also derive from Roman times. But I meant more the trust/mistrust in government that they were measuring in the article.
- troels 15y agoYeah. I went into hand-waving-territiry, because didn't have any concrete references at hand. In medieval history, there is a distinction to be made between roman and germanic law. The concept of roman law is that things are written down and a crime is interpreted in relation to the formal, written text. In germanic law, things are much more contextual. There weren't a lot of formal laws, instead you'll have collection of respected eldars pass judgement. So basically, roman law is pretty much what we have today. Now, I still haven't directly answered your question of course, but the fact that the whole concept of law can be traced back to the romans is at least fairly close.
- bergie 15y agoSome of that Roman vs. Germanic distinction still remains, right? The European continental system relies much more on the written laws, and the Anglo-Saxon system more on precedent. Should also be noted that I wasn't really expecting an answer. A proper answer would probably require another study like the one referenced in this post :-)