Had evolution been behind all this, it would have been far more likely for the cattle to have evolved to produce milk digestible to humans. The cattle whose mi

Had evolution been behind all this, it would have been far more likely for the cattle to have evolved to produce milk digestible to humans. The cattle whose milk was easily digestible would have been selectively bred by the humans. This artificial selection would have been many orders of magnitude more influential than the random, accidental forces alluded to in the article. Yet, that didn’t happen. So, I’m skeptical about an evolutionary explanation. Further, the underlying premise of the study is that humans, circa 6000 years ago, were lactose intolerant. Says who? A critical reader would stop there and demand some answers as to why they are making this assumption. (Indeed, even in this thread, you see confusion and disagreements as to which group of living humans are or are not intolerant... yet, I’m supposed to assume that we know with certainty the prevalence of lactose intolerance amongst a population 6000 years ago?!)